What legal authority did this Court have to impair the rights of the governed?

QUESTIONS PRESENTED FOR REVIEW 1. Because rights are God-given to individuals, what legal authority did this Court have to impair the rights of the governed, specifically in exchange for so-called common law which benefits government actors? By what judicial authority via Article III ; does this Court have to impose its will on the people and the laws they want for their benefit (Article 1)? e 2. Is it an unwritten policy in the Judiciary for federal judges to further this Court’s judicial immunity decree by depriving remedies in the law, e.g. 42 US. Code § 1983-1988 and the All Writs Act? If so, how does a citizen undo this policy or get the remedies in the law when the laws are being violated by federal judges? 3. What powers do federal judges have to act on or in furtherance of void orders? Can a federal judge deny voiding a void order? If so, how can a citizen free themselves from a void order (which is always void) if such cannot be done in the federal courts? 4. When a federal judge fails to comply with the rules of court and impairs a citizen’s rights by the rules of ° court, is there a remedy to address such violations of due process before an appeal? Can a federal judge direct a clerk to violate federal statutes? If so, are these merits-based rulings as it applies to : judicial discipline procedures?