May Congress pass a law under the Commerce Clause that empowers one State to exercise sovereign power that the law denies to all other States?

QUESTION PRESENTED Over a century ago, this Court remarked that “the whole Federal system is based upon the fundamental principle of the equality of the states under the Constitution.” Bolln v. Nebraska, 176 U.S. 83, 89 (1900). It continued: “The idea that one state is debarred, while the others are granted, the privilege of amending their organic laws to conform to the wishes of their inhabitants, is so repugnant to the theory of their equality under the Constitution that it cannot be entertained even if Congress had power to make such discrimination.” Id. Are those words just a fin de siécle sentiment, or do they endure today? The Question Presented is: May Congress pass a law under the Commerce Clause that empowers one State to exercise sovereign power that the law denies to all other States?